If you are looking for free BA1 dumps than here we have some sample question answers available. You can prepare from our CIMA BA1 exam questions notes and prepare exam with this practice test. Check below our updated BA1 exam dumps.
DumpsGroup are top class study material providers and our inclusive range of BA1 Real exam questions would be your key to success in CIMA CIMA Certificate Certification Exam in just first attempt. We have an excellent material covering almost all the topics of CIMA BA1 exam. You can get this material in CIMA BA1 PDF and BA1 practice test engine formats designed similar to the Real Exam Questions. Free BA1 questions answers and free CIMA BA1 study material is available here to get an idea about the quality and accuracy of our study material.
Sample Question 4
Which of the following is most likely to lead to a rise in the exchange rate of country's currency and a fall in the price of stocks shares?
A. An increase in the deficit in the country's balance of payments on current account B. Foreign investors purchasing shares on the country's capital markets C. An increase in the country's money supply D. An increase in rates of interest within the country
Answer: D
Sample Question 5
The real rate of interest is
A. The rate of interest charged by banks on loans. B. The nominal rate of interest adjusted for inflation. C. The compound rate of interest. D. The rate of interest charged on loans plus administrative charges.
Answer: B
Sample Question 6
Which of the following is not a source of long-term capital for a company?
A. Retained profits B. Dividends C. Term loans D. Issuing corporate bonds
Answer: B
Sample Question 7
According to the purchasing power parity theory, if a country's inflation rate is 5% higher than the inflation rates of the country's competitors in the world economy
A. The country's exchange rate will fall by 5% to restore the terms of trade B. The domestic purchasing power of the currency must fall C. The country's firms must reduce their export prices to remain competitive D. The overseas demand for the country's exports will be price elastic
Answer: A
Sample Question 8
Which of the following provide possible explanations for the existence of a structure of interest rates?(i). Borrowers having different risk profiles(ii). Lenders wishing to lend for different time profiles(iii). The market for loanable funds being perfectly competitive(iv). The existence of margins between borrowing and lending rates
A. (i) and (iv) only B. (ii) and (iii) only C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: C
Sample Question 9
All of the following are appropriate policies to deal with the problem of industries which cause pollution except which one?
A. Taxes on the consumption of the product B. Subsidies to the producers C. The auctioning of pollution permits D. Legal controls to limit pollution levels
Answer: B
Sample Question 10
The linking of net savers with net borrows is known as:
A. financial intermediation B. the savings function C. money transfer D. credit creation
Answer: A
Sample Question 11
What is meant by a 'Eurobond'?
A. A bond denominated in Euros B. A bond issued to markets anywhere in Europe C. A bond denominated in a currency that differs from the domestic currency of the country where the bond was issued D. A bond issued by the European Central Bank
Answer: C
Sample Question 12
Which ONE of the following would be expected to reduce the net present value of a proposed investment project? A rise in
A. the expected cash flows from the project B. the scrap value of the capital at the end of the project's life C. interest rates D. the net present value of alternative projects
Answer: C
Sample Question 13
All of the financial instruments are traded on the long term capital market except one.Which ONE is the exception?
A. Shares B. Certificate deposit C. Government undated stock D. Long dated bonds
Answer: B
Sample Question 14
All of the following are examples of not-for-profit organizations except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. Mutual savings societies B. Charities C. Partnerships D. Trade Unions
Answer: C
Sample Question 15
Why was the Global Banking Crisis of 2007 followed by a credit crunch of low lending?
A. Governments sought to reduce aggregate demand to avoid a boom B. Households and firms were unwilling to borrow C. Banks had lost reserves and could not support high lending D. Households had stop saving due to loss of confidence in commercial banks
Answer: C
Sample Question 16
Which one of the following would lead to a fall (depreciation) in the exchange rate for a country's currency?
A. A fall in interest rates in that country B. An inflation rate below that of the country's trading partners C. A fall in that country's imports D. A fall in the export of capital from that country
Answer: A
Sample Question 17
A business could meet a short term financial need by all of the following except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. Using its cash reserves B. A bank overdraft C. Issuing shares D. Factoring
Answer: C
Sample Question 18
Identify the source of funds most appropriate for a growing company to use which wishes to borrow funds long-term to pay for initial marketing research and promotion?
A. A debenture B. A commercial bill C. Ordinary shares D. Overdraft
Answer: C
Sample Question 19
Diseconomies of scale
A. are the result of the operation of the law of diminishing returns B. occur because all firms face a U shaped short run average cost curve C. cause the long run average cost curve to rise D. are the result of businesses adopting a divisional structure
Answer: C
Sample Question 20
Which of the following is NOT a suitable way for a manufacturing company to finance buying assets?
A. Certificates of deposit B. Commercial bills C. Commercial bonds D. Leases
Answer: A
Sample Question 21
£100 of new cash is issued, which is then deposited in a bank which is part of a banking system operating a cash ratio of 10%. The maximum possible increase in the moneysupply which can follow from this transaction, additional to the initial deposit, is
A. £90 B. £190 C. £900 D. £1000
Answer: C
Sample Question 22
Which of the functions of a financial intermediary is described by the following statement 'Bundles small deposits of liquidity into larger loans'?
A. Aggregation B. Risk management C. Maturity transformation D. Introducing borrows and lenders
Answer: A
Sample Question 23
All of the following are functions of central banks except which one?
A. Banker to the commercial banks B. Holder of the foreign exchange reserves C. Banker to the government D. Determination and conduct of fiscal policy
Answer: D
Sample Question 24
A government can finance a budget deficit by:i. increasing taxation rates.ii. Reducing government expenditure.iii. Selling long term government bonds.iv. Issuing Treasury Bills.v. Raising interest rates.vi. Reducing transfer payments.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (ii), (v) and (vi) only C. (ii) and (vi) only D. (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: D
Sample Question 25
Which one of the following methods of government borrowing is most likely to be inflationary? The sale of:
A. Treasury bills to the banking sector B. Long-term securities to insurance companies and pension funds C. National savings securities to the general public D. Long-term securities to the banking sector
Answer: A
Sample Question 26
All of the following were features of the financial crisis of 2008 except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. A rise in the volume of mortgage defaults B. A chronic shortage of liquidity in the banking system C. A severe contraction in inter-bank lending D. A sharp fall in rate of interest on inter-bank lending
Answer: D
Sample Question 27
Which of the functions of a financial intermediary is described by the following statement 'Invests across a wide range of assets to reduce the loss of capital value if a particular borrower defaults'?
A. Aggregation B. Risk management C. Maturity transformation D. Introducing borrows and lenders
Answer: B
Sample Question 28
Calculate the yield to an investor available from the following commercial bill: Face value$100,000 Market price$98,500 Maturity90 days time
A. 1.5% B. 4.5% C. 6.1% D. $1,500
Answer: C
Sample Question 29
Which of the following describes a 'spot rate' in foreign currency dealing?
A. It is a short term rate that may change in the immediate future B. It is the price for a currency that is to be delivered immediately C. It is the exchange rate minus any commissions or transactions charges D. It is the exchange rate minus the inflation rate
Answer: B
Sample Question 30
Which of the following is not a function of a central bank?
A. Banker to the banking system B. Supervision of the banking system C. Banker to the government D. Regulation of the taxation system
Answer: D
Sample Question 31
All of the following are advantages of a system of floating (flexible) exchange rates except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. They provide automatic correction of imbalances in the balance of payments B. Countries no longer need to hold foreign exchange reserves to manage the currency C. Countries with inflationary problems can avoid losing international price competitiveness D. They encourage international trade by eliminating foreign exchange transactions costs
Answer: D
Sample Question 32
A promoter has arranged a large outdoor concert. All the costs are fixed and there are no variable costs associated with the number of spectators attending.Which of the following statements about the profit maximizing price is FALSE?
A. It is the price at which Marginal Revenue is zero B. At this price, the price elasticity of demand will be unity (i.e. equal to 1) C. This price will ensure the promoter covers the cost of the concert D. This is the price which maximizes the revenue the promoter earns from the concert
Answer: C
Sample Question 33
Select the best definition of the corporate governance of a company from the list below.
A. The structure and functions of the Board of a firm B. The systems by which companies are directed and controlled C. The composition and duties of the management of a company D. The financial and non-financial performance of a company
Answer: B
Sample Question 34
If real rates of interest are positive and rising, then
A. The average level of saving will be decreasing B. Lenders are gaining at the expense of borrowers C. The rate of inflation must be increasing D. The desire to hold cash balances will be increasing
Answer: D
Sample Question 35
All of the following were contributory causes of the banking crisis of 2008 (the 'credit crunch') except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. Large scale default in the in the US sub-prime mortgage market B. Over- capitalization of commercial and investment banks C. The bundling of mortgages into collateralized debt obligations which were sold onto banks D. Erroneous credit rating of collateralized debt obligations by credit rating agencies
Answer: B
Sample Question 36
Regulatory offices have been established after the privatization of some nationalized industries because
A. some industries retain significant monopoly power B. the number of new producers entering the industry must be controlled C. these privatized industries produce public goods D. government regulations make monopolies in the private sector illegal.
Answer: A
Sample Question 37
Identify in the following list the statement that does not describe a function of a financial intermediary:
A. Aggregation of funds B. Maturity transformation C. Risk transformation D. Transfer payments
Answer: D
Sample Question 38
In a system of freely floating exchange rates the central bank and government will
A. Not need to engage in exchange equalization B. Allow market forces to determine the exchange rate within a strictly limited band C. Have less ability to control the money supply than in a fixed exchange rate system D. Have to intervene in foreign exchange markets in order to maintain the system
Answer: A
Sample Question 39
All of the following are sources of finance for business except which one?
A. Retained profits B. Certificates of deposit C. New share issues D. Mortgages
Answer: B
Sample Question 40
Financial intermediation is the process by which
A. Net savers and net borrowers are brought together. B. Banks create credit on the basis of their liquid assets. C. The central bank acts as a link between commercial banks and the government. D. Banks provide commercial services for their customers.
Answer: A
Sample Question 41
Central banks inspect and sometimes set minimum limits on the reserves held by commercial banks. Which ONE of the following statements is NOT a reason that centralbanks seek to influence the reserves of commercial banks?
A. To influence commercial banks' ability to create credit B. To avoid the commercial banks running out of liquidity C. To regulate the profits of commercial banks D. To prevent the collapse of the banking system
Answer: C
Sample Question 42
Real GDP per capita in an economy is directly affected by(i). The quantity of resources located in the economy(ii). How efficiently the economy uses resources when producing goods and services(iii). The size of the working population(iv). The flow of investment income from abroad
A. (i) and (iv) only B. (i) and (ii) only C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D
Sample Question 43
The stock market fulfils all of the following functions except which one?
A. A market for government bonds. B. A market for foreign exchange. C. A market for company shares. D. A market for short term loans.
Answer: D
Sample Question 44
Which of the functions of a financial intermediary is described by the following statement 'converts a flow of short-term deposits into a supply of long term loans'?
A. Aggregation B. Risk management C. Maturity transformation D. Introducing borrows and lenders
Answer: C
Sample Question 45
Which of the following is NOT achieved by the price mechanism in a market economy?
A. Signaling of consumers' requirements B. Allocation of adequate resources for future investment C. Rationing of scarce resources between potentially unlimited demands D. Setting of rewards to factors of production
Answer: B
Sample Question 46
All of the following are functions of a central bank except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. Lender of the last resort B. Banker to the commercial banks C. The conduct of fiscal policy D. Regulation of the banking system
Answer: C
Sample Question 47
Which of the following might be regarded as benefits of the single currency, the Euro?(i). Greater freedom for member countries to set their own interest rates(ii). It is easier to compare prices of consumer goods in all countries using the Euro(iii). A reduction in transactions costs for trade between countries using the Euro(iv). Increased economic growth resulting from a more efficient common market
A. (i) and (ii) only B. (i), (ii) and (iv) only C. (iii) and (iv) only D. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: D
Sample Question 48
When central banks adopt a policy of 'quantitative easing' this means that they:
A. Lift quantitative restrictions on bank lending B. Lower the capital adequacy requirements for banks C. Buy government bonds from the banks D. Ease the liquidity ratios banks need to hold
Answer: C
Sample Question 49
Which ONE of the following financial instruments is NOT issued for long term borrowing by the issuer?
A. Treasury bills B. Equities C. Treasury bonds D. Mortgages
Answer: A
Sample Question 50
Identify which of the following features does not distinguish redeemable debt apart from equity:
A. It has a face value which shows its value at redemption B. It will pay a regular set sum of interest C. It will have a maturity date when it will mature D. It will never be traded on an investment market
Answer: D
Sample Question 51
Which of the following is not a reason for a firm to issue bonds rather than ordinary shares to raise additional finance?
A. Cheaper borrowing because the interest payments on bonds qualify for tax relief whereas dividend payments do not B. Cash flow advantages because dividends are discretionary but interest payments are not C. To avoid diluting the votes of existing shareholders as a consequence of issuing shares to strangers D. Lower risk because bond holders cannot liquidate a firm for non-payment of interest whereas shareholders can
Answer: D
Sample Question 52
Which ONE of the following would tend to make the demand for a product price inelastic?
A. Expenditure on the product accounts for a large part of total household spending B. There are many close substitutes for the product C. The product is regarded as a luxury D. The price changed a short while ago
Answer: D
Sample Question 53
All of the following statements about a firms total revenue curve are true except which ONE?
A. Because the price of a product falls as more is supplied to the market the curve is not a straight line B. Price elasticity of demand for the product = 1 at the highest point of the curve C. If price of the product rose the curve would pivot upwards D. The curve would be a horizontal straight line if demand for the product were perfectly price elastic
Answer: D
Sample Question 54
Which of the following are external stakeholders for an organization?i. Shareholdersii. Customersiii. Governmentiv. Trade Unionsv. Pressure groupsvi. Employees
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only C. (iii), (iv) and (v) only D. (i), (v) and (vi) only
Answer: C
Sample Question 55
Which ONE of the following would tend to make the demand for a product price inelastic?
A. Expenditure on the product accounts for a large part of total household spending B. There are many close substitutes for the product C. The product is regarded as a luxury D. The price changed a short while ago
Answer: D
Sample Question 56
Which ONE of the following circumstances is essential if producer incomes are to rise following the imposition of a price floor (minimum price) in a market?
A. Market supply is price inelastic B. Market demand is price inelastic C. Market supply is price elastic D. Market demand is price elastic
Answer: B
Sample Question 57
Firms may suffer from X-inefficiency because of organizational slack. All of the following would lead to organizational slack except which one?
A. Uncertainty about future demand B. Managers become more cautious C. A complex organizational structure in the firm D. The number of rival firms increases
Answer: D
Sample Question 58
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the role of an agent as defined in principal-agent theory?
A. An employee of the organization B. An owner of the organization C. One who is paid by the owners of the organization D. One who is responsible for ensuring the organization pursues the interests of its owners
Answer: D
Sample Question 59
A shift in the supply curve for a good will have the biggest effect on the market price when the demand curve for the good
A. is highly price elastic B. is highly price inelastic C. has unit price elasticity D. is perfectly price elastic
Answer: B
Sample Question 60
Total economic welfare derived from an activity will be maximized if the activity is undertaken up to the point at which
A. Marginal private benefit exceeds marginal private cost B. Marginal social benefit equals marginal social cost C. Marginal social benefit equals marginal private benefit D. Marginal private benefit equals marginal private cost
Answer: B
Sample Question 61
Why do monopoly market structures charge higher prices than would be charged by more competitive market structures?
A. They are more likely to suffer from diseconomies of scale B. They must recover their higher research and development expenditures C. They can increase profits by reducing output to force prices higher D. They have barriers to entry that stop customers going to new markets
Answer: C
Sample Question 62
All of the following are examples of externalities except which one?
A. Pollution resulting from a production process B. Firms training workers who then move to other employers C. Some consumers being unable to afford goods because prices have been driven up by the demand from other consumers D. Road congestion caused by rush hour traffic on the roads
Answer: C
Sample Question 63
Globalization will have all the following effects on businesses except one. Which ONE is the exception?
A. Access to cheaper sources of supply in emerging economies B. Increased competition on world markets for manufactured goods C. Decreased international transportation and communications costs D. The ability to shift production to low cost locations
Answer: C
Sample Question 64
The 'satisfying' model of business behavior states that business will aim to:
A. seek profits as the primary business objective B. concentrate on the long run growth of sales C. attempt to meet the differing demands of various stakeholders D. satisfy shareholders demands to maximize shareholder wealth
Answer: C
Sample Question 65
Which of the following is likely to cause the demand curve of margarine to shift to the left?
A. A fall in the price of margarine B. A fall in the cost of vegetable oils C. A successful advertising campaign by butter producers D. A fall in the price of bread
Answer: C
Sample Question 66
Which of the following provides a definition of a free good?
A. No charge is made for it by its supplier B. Its provision is financed by taxation C. It is produced from renewable resources D. It is available at zero cost of production in unlimited quantities
Answer: D
Sample Question 67
A business can always raise its profits or reduce its losses by increasing output
A. providing total revenue rises as a result B. if it is operating on the downward sloping part of its average cost curve C. providing total revenue rises faster than total variable costs D. if it is operating on the upward sloping part of its total revenue curve
Answer: C
Sample Question 68
Which ONE of the following is NOT a class of stakeholder?
A. Connected B. Internal C. External D. Collaborative
Answer: D
Sample Question 69
If the demand curve for good A is negatively sloped, a fall in the price of a substitute good B results in
A. An increase in the quantity demanded of good A B. A rightward shift in the demand curve for good A C. A leftward shift in the demand curve for good B D. A leftward shift in the demand curve for good A
Answer: D
Sample Question 70
If the government imposed a legal minimum wage that was above the market equilibrium wage, the resulting unemployment would be the greatest when:
A. the demand for labor and the supply of labor are both price inelastic B. the demand for labor and the supply of labor are both price elastic C. the demand for labor is price inelastic and the supply of labor is price elastic D. the demand for labor is price elastic and the supply of labor is price inelastic
Answer: B
Sample Question 71
There are waiting lists and shortages of a product. Which ONE of the following statements explains the cause of this?
A. A price floor (minimum price) has been set above free market price B. A price ceiling (maximum price) has been set above free market price C. A price floor (minimum price) has been set below free market price D. A price ceiling (maximum price) has been set below free market price
Answer: D
Sample Question 72
If a firm increases employment of all its factors of production by 50% and as a result output increases by 60%, it has experienced
A. Increasing productivity of labor B. Increasing returns to scale C. External economies of scale D. The benefits of the division of labor
Answer: B
Sample Question 73
Firms in competitive markets can earn only normal profit in the long run because:
A. they produce homogeneous products B. there are no barriers to entry into these markets C. production costs are the same for all producers D. of the absence of economies of scale
Answer: B
Exam Code: BA1Exam Name: Fundamentals of Business EconomicsLast Update: May 03, 2024Questions: 468
