Cisco 200-301 Dumps PDF

April, 2025 200-301 Practice Questions

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Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Exam Code: 200-301
Certification: CCNA
Vendor: Cisco
Total Questions: 1005
Last Updated: April 24, 2025
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Sample Questions


200-301 Sample Question 1


What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

A. It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.
B. It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.
C. It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.
D. It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.
E. It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.


ANSWER : A,B



200-301 Sample Question 2


A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements: • "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality • used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. mesh
D. cloud-based


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 3


Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts
on the subnet as their default gateway address?

A. multicast address
B. loopback IP address
C. virtual IP address
D. broadcast address


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 4


Refer to the exhibit.


When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop
address does it use to route the packet?

A. 0.0.0.0.0/0
B. 10.56.0.1
C. 10.56.128.19
D. Vlan57


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 5


Refer to the exhibit.


The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of
channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to
but not initiate LACP communication?

A. interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on
B. interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto
D. interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 6


Refer to the exhibit


All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP
priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

A. MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19
B. MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D
C. MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97
D. MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 7


What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A. In-band management via an asynchronous transport
B. out-of-band management via an IP transport
C. in-band management via an IP transport
D. out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 8


What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot
process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

A. discarding
B. listening
C. forwarding
D. learning


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 9


A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or
lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider?
Unlike lightweight access points, which require

A. Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmwareupgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.
B. Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy ofthe current firmware for backup.
C. Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automaticallyfrom a corrupt firmware update.
D. Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC toimplement remote firmware updates.


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 10


Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

A. Local
B. Client
C. Enterprise
D. Personal


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 11


When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to
the AP- Manager interface?

A. Discovery response
B. DHCP request
C. DHCP discover
D. Discovery request


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 12


Refer to the exhibit.


What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

A. Set PMF to Required.
B. Enable MAC Filtering.
C. Enable WPA Policy.
D. Set Fast Transition to Enabled


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 13


What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

A. to enable the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to l
B. to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes
C. to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up
D. to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations
E. to block another switch or host from communicating through the port


ANSWER : B,C



200-301 Sample Question 14


Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 15


What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

A. Automated systems may have difficulty expanding network changes at scale.
B. Network automation typically is limited to the configuration and management of virtual devices within a network.
C. Network automation typically increases enterprise management operating costs.
D. Manual changes frequently lead to configuration errors and inconsistencies.


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 16



SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The
engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC
addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference
room connectivity?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 17


A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If
the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6
address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?

A. /64
B. /96
C. /124
D. /128


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 18


Refer to the exhibit.


The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To
which IP address is the request sent?

A. 192.168.1.226
B. 192.168.1.100
C. 192.168.1.254
D. 192.168.1.253


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 19


Refer to the exhibit.


Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to
establish a host route to PC 10?

A. ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1
B. ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66
C. ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10
D. ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 20


Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1
and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be
self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two
configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)

A. interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA02:/127
B. interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:AFFF::/64 eui-64
C. interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA00:/127
D. interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:AFFF::/64 eui-64
E. interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA03;/127


ANSWER : C,D



200-301 Sample Question 21



Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between
SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which
additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second
member in the LACP port-channel?

A. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1
B. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.
C. Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.
D. Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 22


What is a characteristic of RSA?

A. It uses preshared keys for encryption
B. It requires both sides to have identical keys
C. It is a private-key encryption algorithm
D. It is a public-key cryptosystem


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 23


What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

A. providing a central view of the deployed network
B. forwarding packets
C. making routing decisions
D. setting packet-handling policies


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 24


Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

A. Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)
B. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
C. Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)
D. Point-to-Point Protocol


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 25


When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the
frame handled?

A. broadcast to all ports on the switch
B. flooded to all ports except the origination port
C. forwarded to the first available port
D. inspected and dropped by the switch


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 26


A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF
process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are
different?

A. The router chooses the route with the oldest age.
B. The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.
C. The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.
D. The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 27


Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and
automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

A. SLB
B. FHRP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 28


Refer to the exhibit.


An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that
only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN.
Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 29


Refer to the exhibit.


What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?

A. value
B. object
C. key
D. array


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 30


Refer to the exhibit.


R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the
routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

A. 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10
B. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2
C. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6
D. 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 31


How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

A. ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device
B. signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal
C. measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal
D. any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 32


Refer to the exhibit.


A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which
command must the engineer configure?

A. R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
B. R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2
C. R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10
D. R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 33


Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

A. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.
B. Both require UTP cable media for transmission.
C. Both use the single-mode fiber type.
D. Both use the multimode fiber type.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 34


Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of
data in one request

A. Get
B. GetNext
C. Set
D. GetBulk
E. Inform


ANSWER : A,D



200-301 Sample Question 35


Which is a fact related to FTP?

A. It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors
B. It always operates without user authentication
C. It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.
D. It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 36


How does authentication differ from authorization?

A. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorizationdetermines what resource a user can access.
B. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization isused to determine what resources a user can access
C. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network
D. Authentication is used to verify a person's identity, and authorization is used to createsyslog messages for logins.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 37


How does authentication differ from authorization?

A. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorizationdetermines what resource a user can access.
B. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization isused to determine what resources a user can access
C. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network
D. Authentication is used to verify a person's identity, and authorization is used to createsyslog messages for logins.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 38


An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which
command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned
MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A. switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd
B. switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4
D. switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 39


Refer to the exhibit.


Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

A. 192.168.10/24
B. 192.168.3.0/24
C. 192.168.2.0/24
D. 172.16 1.0/24


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 40


What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

A. It enables dynamic flow identification.
B. It enables policy-based routing.
C. It provides best-effort service.
D. It limits bandwidth usage.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 41


Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

A. UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.
B. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.
C. UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP usescongestion control for efficient packet delivery.
D. UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capabilityto receive packets in random order.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 42


Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must
be met:
• Only Telnet access is allowed.
• The enable password must be stored securely.
• The enable password must be applied in plain text.
• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.
Which configuration script meets the requirements?
A)

 

A. Option
B. Option
C. Option
D. Option


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 43


What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A. Increase the available throughput on the link.
B. Increase security by encrypting management frames
C. Allow for stateful failover between WLCs
D. Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 44


What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

A. AH
B. 3DES
C. ESP
D. TLS
E. AES


ANSWER : D,E



200-301 Sample Question 45



Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the
subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 46


An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to
prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before
this command?

A. Password complexity enable
B. confreg 0x2142
C. Login authentication my-auth-list
D. service password-encryption


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 47


A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 48


Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

A. full mesh
B. Point-to-point
C. hub-and-spoke
D. router-on-a-stick


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 49


What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

A. to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device
B. to set the severity of syslog messages from each device
C. to identify the source from which each syslog message originated
D. to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 50


Refer to the exhibit.


A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch
office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the
engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

A. ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1
B. ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1
C. ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 51


Refer to the exhibit.


An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have
been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be
applied?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 52


Refer to the exhibit.


An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have
been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be
applied?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 53


Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

A. physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU
B. configuration files backed by physical resources from the Hypervisor
C. applications running on the Hypervisor
D. processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 54


Refer to the exhibit.


What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

A. /25
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 55


Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

A. BPDU guard
B. loop guard
C. portfast
D. uplinkfast


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 56


A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

A. ARP
B. CDP
C. flooding
D. multicast


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 57


Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps
two VLANs to its WLANs?

A. LAG
B. EtherChannel
C. trunk
D. access


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 58


Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access? 

A. global unicast
B. public
C. private
D. multicast


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 59


Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.

A. WPA2
B. WPA3
C. Wi-Fi 6
D. WEP
E. WPA


ANSWER : B,D



200-301 Sample Question 60


Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destination of a packet differs from the security termination point?

A. tunnel
B. transport
C. aggressive
D. main


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 61


Refer to the exhibit.


Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

A. queuing
B. marking
C. shaping
D. policing


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 62


Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

A. when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy
B. to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache
C. to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free
D. to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 63


Refer to the exhibit.


A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be
performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

A. Enable the Broadcast SSID option
B. Enable the Status option.
C. Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.
D. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.
E. Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest


ANSWER : A,B



200-301 Sample Question 64


Refer to the exhibit.


assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also
account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for
subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address
space for the expected growth?

A. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252
B. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248
C. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0
D. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 65


Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over
traditional campus management?

A. Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtaininsights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.
B. Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load oninfrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.
C. Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric andnonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.
D. Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices,and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 66


What is the function of northbound API?

A. It upgrades software and restores files.
B. It relies on global provisioning and configuration.
C. It supports distributed processing for configuration.
D. It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 67


Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 12


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 68


A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access
list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20
network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8
network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 69


Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

A. To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices
B. To centralize device information storage
C. To implement centralized user account management
D. To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network Answer: A


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 70


Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option
B. Option
C. Option
D. Option


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 71


Refer to the exhibit.


What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration
shown?

A. Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool
B. Configure the NAT outside interface
C. Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1
D. Apply the ACL to the pool configuration


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 72


What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

A. VLAN trunking
B. tunneling
C. first hop redundancy
D. link aggregation


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 73


What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

A. to secure physical access to a data center
B. to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram
C. to securely manage and deploy network devices
D. to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 74


What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

A. forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN
B. learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away from the LAN
C. blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge
D. listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 75


What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an
access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

A. All four pairs of the cable are used
B. It detects the device is a powered device
C. The default level is used for the access point
D. Power policing is enabled at the same time


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 76


What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?

A. It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.
B. It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.
C. It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.
D. It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 77


Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A. snmp-server host
B. snmp-server community
C. snmp-server enable traps
D. snmp-server user


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 78


What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

A. DHCPREQUEST
B. DHCPDISCOVER
C. DHCPACK
D. DHCPOFFER


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 79


Refer to the exhibit.


Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

A. It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.
B. It floods packets to all learned next hops.
C. It discards the packets.
D. It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 80


What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

A. They use HTTP messages to communicate.
B. They enable communication between the controller and the network device.
C. They convey information from the controller to the SDN applications.
D. They communicate with the management plane.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 81


What is a function of an endpoint?

A. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services
B. It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network
C. It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN
D. It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 82


Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A. Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditionalcampus management uses SNMPv2.
B. Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campusmanagement uses HTTP.
C. Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requiresmanual data gathering.
D. Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent fromtraditional campus management.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 83


Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 84


Refer to the exhibit.


A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 32


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 85


Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?

A. dynamic
B. service port
C. virtual
D. management


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 86


Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

A. multicast
B. private
C. loopback
D. public


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 87


A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with
new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security
standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the
modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new
switches? (Choose two.)

A. crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa usage-keys
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport Input ssh


ANSWER : A,E



200-301 Sample Question 88


A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with
new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security
standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the
modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new
switches? (Choose two.)

A. crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa usage-keys
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport Input ssh


ANSWER : A,E



200-301 Sample Question 89


A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with
new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security
standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the
modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new
switches? (Choose two.)

A. crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa usage-keys
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport Input ssh


ANSWER : A,E



200-301 Sample Question 90


Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of
parameters meets the requirement?

A. personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate
B. complex password and personal 10-digit PIN
C. password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN
D. fingerprint scanning and facial recognition


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 91


Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points? 

A. virtual interface
B. management interface
C. console port
D. service port


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 92


Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and
learns for a specific time period?

A. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6
B. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10
C. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 93


Refer to the exhibit.


What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

A. Port security
B. High throughput
C. Cable disconnect
D. duplex mismatch


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 94


What is the role of SNMP in the network?

A. to monitor network devices and functions using a TCP underlay that operates on the presentation layer
B. to collect data directly from network devices using an SSL underlay that operates on the transport layer
C. to monitor and manage network devices using a UDP underlay that operates on the application layer
D. to collect telemetry and critical information from network devices using an SSH underlay that operates on the network layer


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 95


Refer to the exhibit.


Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

A. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0
B. ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0
C. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0
D. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 96


Refer to the exhibit.
When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which
interface does it route the packet?

A. Null0
B. VIan58
C. Vlan60
D. VIan59


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 97


In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast
subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A. when the subnet must be available only within an organization
B. when the subnet does not need to be routable
C. when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses
D. when the subnet must be routable over the internet


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 98


In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast
subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A. when the subnet must be available only within an organization
B. when the subnet does not need to be routable
C. when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses
D. when the subnet must be routable over the internet


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 99


What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

A. data center network pokey con
B. console server that permits secure access to all network devices
C. IP address cool distribution scheduler
D. software-defined controller for automaton of devices and services


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 100


Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application
hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by
the routing table?

A. The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly
B. The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic
C. The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2
D. The traffic to 192 168 010 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 101


Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

A. service
B. trunk
C. AP-manager
D. virtual AP connection


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 102


What is a feature of WPA?

A. 802.1x authentication
B. preshared key
C. TKIP/MIC encryption
D. small Wi-Fi application


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 103


A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet
mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must
the engineer use?

A. /29
B. /30
C. /27
D. /28


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 104


Which capability does TFTP provide?

A. loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices
B. provides authentication for data communications over a private data network
C. provides encryption mechanisms for file transfer across a WAN
D. provides secure file access within the LAN


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 105


What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?

A. Router
B. Wireless controller
C. Anti software
D. Cisco DNA Center


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 106


Refer to the exhibit.


Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network
engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to
network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

A. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100
B. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121
C. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121
D. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 107


Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

A. ESX host
B. resolver
C. web
D. file transfer
E. authentication


ANSWER : A,C



200-301 Sample Question 108


Refer to the exhibit.


Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

A. 2001 :db8::5000:0004:5678:0090/64
B. 2001 :db8:4425:5400:77ft:fe07:/64
C. 2001 :db8::5000:00ff:fe04 0000/64
D. 2001 :db8::5200:00ff:fe04:0000/64


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 109


Refer to the exhibit.


What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

A. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.
B. This is a root bridge.
C. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.
D. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.
E. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 110


What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?

A. The switch references the MAC address aging table for historical addresses on the port that received the frame.
B. The switch floods the frame to all ports in all VLANs except the port that received the frame
C. The switch drops the frame and learns the destination MAC address again from the port that received the frame
D. The switch floods the frame to all ports in the VLAN except the port that received the frame.


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 111


Refer to the exhibit.


What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

A. Select PSK under Authentication Key Management
B. Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security
C. Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security
D. Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption
E. Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management


ANSWER : B,E



200-301 Sample Question 112


What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

A. It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.
B. It serves as a password lo protect access to MIB objects.
C. It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access
D. It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 113


Refer to the exhibit.


The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be
configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command
set must be configured to complete this task?


A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 114


A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the
alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.

A. Place the AP into manual containment.
B. Remove the AP from WLC management.
C. Manually remove the AP from Pending state.
D. Set the AP Class Type to Friendly.


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 115


Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option
B. Option
C. Option


ANSWER : C



200-301 Sample Question 116


Refer to the exhibit.


What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

A. 255.255.248.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.240.0


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 117


To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge
authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is
being deployed?

A. user training
B. user awareness
C. vulnerability verification
D. physical access control


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 118


Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

A. out-of-band management
B. secure in-band connectivity for device administration
C. unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers
D. HTTP-based GUI connectivity


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 119


Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

A. ::ffif 1014 1011/96
B. 2001 7011046:1111:1/64
C. ;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d
D. 2002 5121204b 1111:1/64
E. FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104


ANSWER : B



200-301 Sample Question 120


Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?

A. 802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption
B. TKIP encryption improving WEP and per-packet keying
C. AES-64 m personal mode and AES-128 in enterprise mode
D. forward secrecy and SAE in personal mode for secure initial key exchange


ANSWER : D



200-301 Sample Question 121


What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

A. It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.
B. It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.
C. It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.
D. It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 122


An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information
on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command
prompt on the user's computer?

A. ipconfig /all
B. ifconfig -a
C. show interface
D. netstat -r


ANSWER : A



200-301 Sample Question 123


Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


ANSWER : D